KNEC Examiner Training Practice Test 2026

Instruction: Answer all questions

1. Which one of the following is a Form of summative assessment?

1. Continuous assessment tests
2. Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education – KCSE
3. Weekly classroom assignment
4. Field visit reports

2. A Test said to have content validity if;

1. It produces similar results when administered to different candidates
2. It is able to discriminate between the weak and bright candidates
3. The instructions for the questions are clear
4. The questions are set according to the syllabus

3. A test is considered easy if it has a mean of;

1. 65% and above
2. Below 50%
3. Between 45% and 50%
4. Below 30%

4. KNEC caters for candidates with disabilities by;

1. Preparing different exam papers for them
2. Marking their papers separately
3. Adapting exam papers to suit their needs
4. Grading them differently from regular candidates

5. Statement is true about Multiple Choice Questions

1. They are asy to construct
2. They are difficult to score
3. They cover a wider field of knowledge
4. They are used to measure how students organize their thoughts

6. The use of Item banking to prepare tests is considered effective because it

1. Has readily available quality items
2. It operates with Multiple Choice Questions only
3. It can operate without any computerized application

8. The following attributes can be said about Essay type of questions.

1. They are relatively easy to set
2. Marking is subjective
3. Enables students to possess argumentative skills
4. Time consuming

Which one of the following combination of attributes portrays disadvantages of Essay questions?

1. (i), (ii)
2. (ii), (iv)
3. (iii), (iv)
4. (i), (iii)

9. Continuous assessment is desirable because:

1. It reduces temptation in students and teachers to cheat or facilitate cheating.
2. It offers a true picture of the students ability
3. Students have a phobia for examination
4. It offers teachers to access areas where the external examination at the end of the course may not examine.

10. Which one of the following is the factor that most affects reliability of a test?

1. Students Emotions
2. Students unpreparedness
3. Error in the test
4. Variation in the methods of teaching

11. Which one of the following factors can affect the reliability of marking National Examination?

1. Inadequate knowledge in subject area
2. Marking many scripts
3. Examiners who commute
4. Marking few scripts

12. The Kenya National Examination Council scores KCPE objective questions by use of :

1. Manual marking
2. Ideal marking
3. Machine marking
4. Impression marking

13. Which of the following is described as negative marking?

1. Impression marking
2. Analytic marking
3. Manual marking
4. Ideal marking

14. Which one of the following is the major reason for training examiners at National Level? It ensures:

1. Strictness in marking
2. Validity in marking
3. Reliability in marking
4. Equity in marking

15. Which one of the following is a very important attribute in recruitment of examiners to mark National Examination

1. Team Player
2. Integrity
3.  Self-efficacy
4.  Efficiency

16. Which one of the following is not a role of an Examiner?

1. Distribute and control scripts and mark sheets
2. Transfer marks from scrips to the mark sheets
3. Cross checking of scripts.
4. Mark live scripts

17. The purpose of Pre-coordination in marking is meant for

1. Familiarizing with other Examiners
2. Organizing marking of Scripts
3. Organizing marking of dummies
4. Developing rubric

18. What is the most important reason for developing a marking scheme at the time of developing a test?

1. To avoid ambiguous questions.
2. To be used during marking
3. To allocate the time to questions
4. To allocate marks to the questions

19. Which one of the following is not necessarily a feature of good marking?

1. Lack of biasness
2. Speedy marking
3. Fair judgement of candidates’ responses
4. Provision of intended results

20. Which of the following statement does not describe a situation under which “hallo effect” can occur?

1. A good script followed by an average one.
2. A poor script followed by a good one
3. A well presented answer followed by an average answer
4. An average response followed by a moderate one.

21. The process in which examiners react raw scores against computer generated scores is called

1. Marking
2. Adjudication
3. Scoring
4. Coordination

22. The tolerated deviation range expected of an examiner in standard marking is:

1. -3 to +3
2. -4 to +2
3. -2 to +2
4. 0 to +2

23. The examiners in a belt who makes the sum of the total marks on the answer scripts is

1. First examiner
2. Last examiner
3. Third examiners
4. Team leader

24. Who among the following senior examiners coordinates  examiners in a belt?

1. Deputy chief examiner
2. Assistant chief examiner
3. Team leader
4. Chief examiner

25. Which one of the following documents is not required during marking?

1. Claim voucher
2. Marking scheme
3. Question paper
4. Mark sheet

26. Which one of the following is an obstacle to group dynamism?

1. Proper communication
2. Harmony
3. Tolerance
4. Absenteeism

27. The process of passing a candidate’s script from one examiner to another during marking is known as

1. Conveyance
2. Computation
3. Marking
4. Adjudication

28. What is the overall belt manager during the marking of live scripts apportioned to assistant chief examiners?

1. Chief examiner
2. Assistant Chief Examiner
3. Subject officer
4. Team leader

29. The main reason why pre-marking coordination is necessary is because it enables examiners to:

1. Know each other well
2. Write a report well
3. Internalize the marking scheme
4. Apportion scripts among themselves

30. Which one of the following a disadvantage of applying the conveyor belt system in marking?

1. It is too much work for examiners
2. It is consuming
3. It discourages team work
4. It increases deviation in marking

31. The main reason that makes candidates cheat in examinations is

1. Stiff competition
2. Poor preparation
3. Lack of integrity
4. Poor invigilation

32. Which one of the following factors would not motivate students to cheat during an examination?

1. Unfair test
2. Institution ethos
3. Loyalty in peer group
4. Vigilante invigilation

33. The following are implication of failure to detect cheating during marking except

1. Undermining the purpose of examination
2. Encouraging competition among candidates
3. Eroding confidence of the public on examination
4. Awarding false grades to candidates

34. An examiner can facilitate commission of an offence in the following ways during marking except by

1. Abetting
2. Inciting
3. Inducting
4. Hindering

35. An attempt to gain unfair advantage during an examination is reffered to as

1. Cheating
2. Fraud
3. Malpractice
4. Stealing

36. Which among the following methods of preventing cheating would be the most effective in an examination room?

1. Observing the candidates behaviour and body language
2. Checking the candidates desks before the start of the eamination
3. Restraining the candidates from leaving the examination room
4. Asking students to leave and unauthorized material

37. Which of the given examination will not indicate an overall result of “Y” for candidates who involve themselves in an examination irregularity?

1. KCSE
2. PTE
3. Business examination
4. KCPE

38. Which one of the following signs will least assist an examiner to detect cheating among KCPE candidates during marking?

1. Writing the same response
2. Erasing responses
3. Presenting an answer script with different handwritings
4. Leaving out similar questions unanswered.

39. An examiner can show integrity during marking by

1. Marking all scripts allocated
2. Marking within the specified perion
3. Ensuring that candidates scripts are marked accurately
4. Ensuring that candidates’ scripts are packed well

40. When there is a breach of integrity during marking, the candidates are affected by

1. Delay in release of results
2. Delay in issuing of certificates
3. Cancellation of results
4. Unreliable examination scores

41. As a chief examiner, you discover that one of the team leaders in your paper is HIV positive, the correct action for you to take is to

1. Appoint another examiner to assist the team leader
2. Inform KNEC on the status of the team leader
3. Allow the team leader to continue with the work
4. Relieve the team leader of all responsibilities

42. As a team leader you discover that one of the examiners takes alcohol during working hours and lagging behind in his work. What should you do?

1. Report to the chief examiner
2. Call the examiner and counsel him
3. Bar the examiner from your team
4. Keep quiet and ignore him

 43. KNEC caters for examiners with disability by ………

1. Ensuring that their payment for marking is not taxed.
2. Allocating them fewer scripts to mark
3. Paying them more than other examiners
4. Allowing them to report for marking later than others

44. Which one of the following processes is not applied during online e-marks capture

1. Entering marks on manual mark sheets
   1. Keying marks in the online system
   1. Shading of OMR forms
   1. Adjusting marks captured

45. An advantage of using online/e-marks capture system is

1. It is faster and reliable
2. It allows examiners to mark faster
3. It ensures data security
4. It facilitates grading of candidates

46. Which one of the following reports is not generated from the e-capture system?

1. Mark sheets
2. Absentees list
3. Missing mark list
4. Nominal roll

47. The purpose of report writing during marking is to

1. Give information to the examiners
2. Provide feedback to the candidates
3. Help KNEC make decisions
4. Transmit information to supervisors and invigilators

48. Which of the following reports will an ordinary examiners be exempted from compiling ?

1. Chief Examiner report
2. Report on examination irregilarities
3. Confidential reports on examines
4. Suitability of marking venues

49. The Chief examiners’ report is important in the following ways except

1. Serving as monitoring and evaluation tool
2. Giving feedback to test developers
3. Guides in grading of the paper
4. Gives feedback on the quality of examiners

50. A challenge that can greatly affect the usefulness of a chief examiners report is

1. When comments made do not reflect the candidates’ performance
2. Failure of the chief examiner to sign the report
3. If the chief examiner does not indicate skills tested
4. If all examiners are not involved in the report writing